Posted by: bellagerens | 24 June, 2009

Open question

If a woman gives a blow job, is she demeaning herself/appeasing the oppressor?

Discuss.

Or if you don’t want to discuss, vote in my poll:


Responses

  1. I’m guessing it must be a form of rape.

    Which is why guys like it so much.

  2. What if she came on the guy’s tongue just before the blow job? Just a bit of quid pro blow surely.

  3. Why is the free choice option qualified with “most of the time”?

    Either it’s a free choice or it isn’t.

  4. Because, nbc, it is possible to force people into physical acts they have not chosen to do; and I am sensitive to readers who may have experienced such a thing and who may not appreciate the assumption that sex acts are always a matter of choice.

  5. “I am sensitive to readers who may have experienced such a thing”.

    So am I for reasons that I’m not going to go into publicly.

    So if there’s no consent then it is at least sexual assault and more likely rape. But, as it can be quite hard to prove rape these days, I’d recommend ripping his nuts off.

  6. Agreed.


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